[isatrader]

My question is: when you move the stoploss level, do you consider the level that the SMA30w/SMA10w had at the moment of the low or the level that it has when you move the stoploss ? And, to go further in this idea, do you eventually move the stoploss following the SMA, provided that the stoploss stays under the last low ?

I don't think this one has every been answered. Personally I use the 30 week MA level from when you move the stop loss up, and don't move it up until the next pullback and rebound. But I imagine others might tighten up to right under the swing low once the MA catches up to it. But I don't personally think it would make much difference either way, as Weinstein investor stops are mostly disaster stops to begin with, and only become more in play as you get further into the advance, at which point they become much tighter and move above the 30 week MA. So as with most things in the method, there's a certain amount of judgement required as to when to get more aggressive with the stops. But early on, they are meant to be very loose in order to let the stock move naturally, as stocks often go higher into Stage 2A, and then sideways for the first part of the advance as it battles for a new trand, and then the momentum part of a Stage 2 advance doesn't normally come until the second or third continuation breakout a lot of the time.